Originally Posted by Chili con Carne
Do they need to prove intentional slash to the head, or just intentional slash (with the results - e.g. hit him in the head - being inconsequential to intent, but playing a role in the suspension assessment)?
There is no reason for him to slash anyone in that instance so I don't mind seeing some consequences. Just going out on a limb here, but if I owned some kind of antique sword (just an example) and I was swinging it around recklessly and injured someone, I am probably going to be held responsible for it.
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